Skip to content

Ask Kingston

Answers to Christianity Questions

  • Home
  • Who was Fatima in the Bible?

Who was Fatima in the Bible?

Posted on October 21, 2021October 25, 2021 By Kingston Tong No Comments on Who was Fatima in the Bible?
Uncategorized

Thank you for the question about Fatima in the Bible.

Other respondents have observed correctly that the name Fatima or variations of that name is not in the Bible. However saying that the meaning of that word is used to describe believer’s conduct.

The word, Fatima, is defined as one who weans an infant or one who abstains morally. It is being virtuous. Thus in a general sense all believers are to be “fatima” that is being morally pure from within.

The term itself is now associated with the three children who purported to have seen the Virgin Mary. Whether that vision(s) is/are true or not is debated depending on one’s biblical view.

From one’s consideration, there are visions in the Bible. The notable difference is that no deceased person gives a vision except for one event of Samuel being called up from the death by King Saul. One would think that as Jesus appeared to Saul of Tarsus or that Stephen saw the Lord as he was dying, this may bring the vision of the three children into question.

Jesus further states that even if a death person was to come back to life the living individuals would question or doubt what s/he saw. Jesus states that they have the Scriptures and that is sufficient. The writers of the New Testament has already written that the end times will be worse with men and women’s heart growing cold and callous.

The Apostle Paul says this in II Timothy 3, “But mark this: There will be terrible times in the last days. 2 People will be lovers of themselves, lovers of money, boastful, proud, abusive, disobedient to their parents, ungrateful, unholy, 3 without love, unforgiving, slanderous, without self-control, brutal, not lovers of the good, 4 treacherous, rash, conceited, lovers of pleasure rather than lovers of God— 5 having a form of godliness but denying its power. Have nothing to do with such people” (NIV).

SUMMARY: Any morally pure person is a “Fatima.”

For more perspectives:

https://www.quora.com/Who-was-Fatima-in-the-Bible

Post navigation

❮ Previous Post: What is the significance of Cornelius’ conversion in the Book of Acts?
Next Post: What does it mean if we can’t mourn over our sins like in James 4:8-10? ❯

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Categories

  • About Ask Kingston
  • Devotional Thoughts
  • My Journey of Faith
  • Pastoral Ministry
    • Counseling
    • Member Care
    • Small Groups
      • Colossians
      • Seven Churches of Revelation
      • Stand Alone Lessons
      • Training Material
  • Questions & Answers
    • Christian Living
    • New Testament
    • Old Testament
    • The Bible
    • Theology
    • Uncategorized
  • Sermon/Sunday School

Recent Posts

  • THE PHARAOHS OF EGYPT AND THE ISRAELITES
  • Christ Our Passover
  • Academy Hour Class: The Season of Friendship
  • Seniors. The Ninth Inning.
  • Devotional Thoughts in the Gospel of John, Overview of Chapter 20

Archives

  • August 2023
  • April 2023
  • March 2023
  • February 2023
  • September 2022
  • August 2022
  • July 2022
  • June 2022
  • May 2022
  • April 2022
  • March 2022
  • February 2022
  • January 2022
  • December 2021
  • November 2021
  • October 2021
  • September 2021
  • August 2021
  • July 2021
  • June 2021
  • May 2021
  • April 2021
  • March 2021
  • February 2021
  • January 2021
  • December 2020
  • November 2020
  • October 2020
  • September 2020
  • August 2020
  • July 2020
  • June 2020

Copyright © 2026 Ask Kingston.

Theme: Oceanly by ScriptsTown