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Why is the Hebrew word אֲבִיעַ֖ד in Isaiah 9:6, more often translated as “Eternal (or Everlasting) Father” rather than “Father of Eternity”, which most Hebrew scholars seem to agree is the more literal meaning?

Posted on January 26, 2021October 26, 2021 By Kingston Tong No Comments on Why is the Hebrew word אֲבִיעַ֖ד in Isaiah 9:6, more often translated as “Eternal (or Everlasting) Father” rather than “Father of Eternity”, which most Hebrew scholars seem to agree is the more literal meaning?
Old Testament

Thank you for the interpretative question on translation of Isaiah 9:6 on “Eternal Father or “Father of Eternity”.

As a Christian, I am not a Hebrew scholar. My comments below do not represent other Christians or other churches, but rather a perspective on the passage.

Both Hebrew and Christian scholars debate on the interpretation of Isaiah 9:6–7. The critical question is this: Is this child born from the lineage of David just a normal human being or more than just a human being? In other words, the debate become who is this son of David and his attributes.

It is likely that Jewish scholars would interpret the overall text as a son of David while the Christians would interpret the overall text as the God-Man Son of David. Every scholar has a certain assumptions and convictions in approaching the Scriptures while affects one’s interpretation of it. This includes Christians, Jews, Atheists and even Agnostics.

A. Comments on “Eternal Father” and “Father of Eternality.

As one reads the two translation, what is the difference between them. It appears to be saying the same thing or is it?

The words, Eternal Father, implies a self-existing being without beginning that is alongside Elohim. In other words, two beings co-existing from eternity.

The words, Father of Eternity, implies a created being who came into existence with the attribute of having ending life and the giver of unending life. In other words, this being is not equal to Elohim since the child had a beginning.

Which interpretation of the text is correct? I will let the reader ponder these following thoughts:

  1. The Hebrew word is one singular word: everlasting (eternal)-Father
  2. The Hebrew word does not include the proposition “of” before eternity. If Isaiah used the proposition, of, there will be less of a debate, but since he didn’t, what does that mean?
  3. If the phrase, Father of Eternity, does it mean that his eternity began at his birth without ending? Thus he is not the “Father of Eternity” since the forefather of the Jews precede him as Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, etc. They existed before him and as they continue to exist before God.
  4. If the phrase, Father of Eternity, refers to his creation before the Universe and that he created all things, then he is more than just a mere person.
  5. If the word, Elohim, is plural in form, which it is, does it allow for more than one person in the “Godhead”?

Other considerations on the text:

  1. Are the names/titles given to that child just a title or more of a description of his character and attribute?
  2. How is the righteous rule established by this child continues forever if he dies? In other words will there be descendants from this child from generation onward always rule righteously or that this child will never die and reign forever?
  3. What does the name/title, Almighty God, implied and would Elohim be offended if that child was called by that title?
  4. Why is the title, Prince of Peace, ascribed to him and not God or King of Peace?

As I looked at the Isaiah 9:6–7 in the translated text from the Hebrew text, it appears the proposition, of, is not used in the names given but more in an adjective form as Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, not God of might and Peace Prince. There is no preposition, of, in the translated English text, Prince of Peace. I may be wrong in my observation so I will let the scholars comment further on the names/titles. Is the translation, Father of Eternality, correct or the Everlasting Father correct? One has to study the Scriptures.

For the other Bible scholars, I didn’t cite Gen. 1:1–3, John 1:1–3, Ephesians 1, Colossians 1, Hebrews 1 or other texts to support the Godhead view since one is dealing with the text itself. It is upon studying the text itself that one can look at other verses in comparing text to text. My personal view is that I believe the text implies a God-Man who will sit on the throne of David forever.

SUMMARY: Careful observation and good questions are needed to be asked before one draws a conclusion on the text, followed by comparing Scripture to Scripture.

For more perspectives:

https://www.quora.com/Why-is-the-Hebrew-word-%D7%90%D6%B2%D7%91%D6%B4%D7%99%D7%A2%D6%B7%D6%96%D7%93-in-Isaiah-9-6-more-often-translated-as-Eternal-or-Everlasting-Father-rather-than-Father-of-Eternity-which-most-Hebrew-scholars-seem-to

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