The question being asked does not do justice to the Scriptures since one is making certain assertions that is not found in the text. There are certain assumptions or assertions that I disagree with you based on the text. These are the following:
A. Joseph was an immoral man while the Biblical text states that he was a righteous man (Matt. 1:19).
B. Joseph preyed on Mary Magdalene while the Biblical text states that he was engaged to Mary (Matt. 1:18). He had no reason to rape her since he was going to marry her.
C. Joseph preyed on Mary Magdalene while the Biblical text states that he married Mary, not to Mary Magdalene (Luke 2:5). There is a failure to distinguish the Mary’s in the Gospels (Luke 24:10).
D. Joseph preyed on Mary Magdalene while the Biblical text states that he did not have sexual intimacy with her until her firstborn child was born (Matt. 2:25). Joseph was not a sexual predator.
E. Joseph preyed on Mary Magdalene while the Biblical text states that he was planning to divorce her quietly so as not to disgrace her (Matt.1:19).
F. Joseph preyed on Mary Magdalene while the Biblical text state that he was not aware of her pregnancy until three months later (Matt. 1:18). Joseph thought that Mary acted immorally or was raped when she went to visit Elizabeth. Joseph had a difficult time accepting Mary’s story of her miraculous conception.
Surely one is entitle to one’s interpretation of the pregnancy of Mary, but please do not misrepresent the Scriptures in an incorrect manner.
I do not agree with one’s assertion about the character of Joseph and Mary. I believe the Biblical record is correct that both Joseph and Mary were godly people.
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